i want to differentiate X=[2(v^2)/g]sin(a)cos(a) with respect to a so i can prove that 45 degrees is the angle of maximum trajectory but a whole summer off has given me some severe brainrot! its quite embarassing!! anybody a genius at integrals? cmon andre your studying physics!!
Oh, dude you are a TOTAL newb if you can't figure that one out! Just take the square root 45 and multiply by the cosine of the perpendicular angle of trajectory, add a cross product of the measures of an isoceles triangle's base and leg angles, and divide by 3.0000005456453257897632874320403043. Duh.
:lol:
jk bro sorry I couldn't help
This is a pretty easy fuction to take the derivative of, considering you just have a constant multiplied by the product of two trigonometric functions.
so know you have a simplified version of the derivative in the form of
f'(a) = 2*v^2/g*cos(2a)
Hope that helps a little! That's about all I can remember right now, but I'm sure there is some significance with the 2cos(2a) part. It's a double angle something or another... I'm gonna go look it up... I'll get back to you when I think about this problem a little more.
Yup! There you go... I forgot all about the 45 degree angle by the time I was working myself through that one. I'm so used to just dealing with theoretical things, I'm sitting here scratching MY head about the double angle thing still.
Just wait until you get to complex analysis. Trig functions go bye-bye (well, kinda).
Just remember, cos(x) + i*sin(x) = e^ix, and e^i*pi = 1.
It all gets so wonderful. Especially when you get to convolution integrals and residue integration.
You better keep it down, or the guys in the nearby "Shamrock v Ortiz 3" thread will bust in and steal your lunch money and break your pocket protectors.
You better keep it down, or the guys in the nearby "Shamrock v Ortiz 3" thread will bust in and steal your lunch money and break your pocket protectors.
The scary part is, I understand some of this stuff!
Some of that looks like quantum, some looks like E&M.
There doesn't seem to appear to be any interrelationship between these equations, they are all random, because you've got a matrix element representation of one function at the top, but a ket vector notation of a time-dependant waveform in the middle, and what looks like a quantum potential at the bottom, hence the i h-bar, where I'm assuming h-bar in this case is Planck's constant.
darn product rule! been over a year since i had to use that hence the forgetting! turns out the bit i had remembered was the top half of the quotient rule so i had a - sign in there which screwed it all up big time!
cheers for the help guys! lets hope this assignment freshens my brain up a bit!!
h bar is the modified planck constant isnt it? i seem to recall from somehere (god knows where cos ive never been taught it) that its plancks constant over 2 pi
and theres definitely some electromagnetism in the one with the e^2 on top cos it has 1/4pi epsilon zero aswell as the charge of an electron/proton in the equation
Yeah, pretty much. It's all the same (kinda). I just always knew either one of them as Planck's constant. They are the same thing, but just different units.
It's like talking about frequency as omega, or f. f is just omega/2*pi.
LOL, yep, its all, for the most part random Quantum Mechanic stuff, Schrödinger equasions, Planck's constant, and some stuff relating to M-theory (E8 Mathematics)
This is an older thread, you may not receive a response, and could be reviving an old thread. Please consider creating a new thread.
Related Threads
?
?
?
?
?
Ibanez JEM Forum
1.3M posts
69.6K members
Since 2000
A forum community dedicated to Ibanez JEM guitar owners and enthusiasts. Come join the discussion about collections, displays, models, styles, scales, reviews, accessories, classifieds, and more!